Could someone with experience with old legal documents give your feedback on
the following. I have a court record of a father giving consent for his son
to act as his power of attorney in the sale of his land. This consent was
signed in Sept 1791 in Randolph Co. VA (now WV) and proved in the court of
that same county in Apr 1792. The land in question was sold in May 1792.
The situation as I know it to be is that all or most of the children of the
father in question had already moved to KY... except for the son to which he
is giving PoA. The son who acted as PoA and sold the land did, himself,
move to KY immediately after the sale. So :
1. Could this reasonably indicate that the father was also moving
out of state before his land could be sold?
2. For what reasons would a father sell his land rather than will it
to his children? (The fact that he names his son PoA indicates that he had a
good relationship with at least this one son... and there is nothing to
indicate that he was not on good terms with all his children.)
Linda
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